The Objection
The law of Moses was abolished at the cross. Christians are now under the law of Christ.
The Response
The phrase "law of Christ" is only found in two places in the Bible, and Paul wrote both.
What did Paul mean when he used this phrase?
To the Jews I became as a Jew, so that I might win Jews; to those who are under the Law, as under the Law though not being myself under the Law, so that I might win those who are under the Law; to those who are without law, as without law, though not being without the law of God but under the law of Christ, so that I might win those who are without law. (1 Corinthians 9:20-21)
Paul states that he is approaching those who are "without the law" (i.e., Gentiles) from the perspective of being "without law". He clarifies his statement to avoid confusion: "though not being without the law of G-d" but "under the law of Christ."
Not without the law of G-d = Paul has the law of G-d.
Under the law of Christ = Paul has the law of Christ.
Is Paul attempting to contrast "the law of G-d" with "the law of Christ"? Not at all! Paul affirms they are the same: the law of G-d is the law of Christ.
The other time Paul uses this phrase is in Galatians:
Bear one another's burdens, and thereby fulfill the law of Christ. (Galatians 6:2)
Nothing in this Galatians passage suggests the law of Christ is anything other than the same law of G-d given to Moses.
While most Christians will agree that they are "under the law of Christ," they don't recognize what it is.
Scripture says...
Objection overruled.
If you still have questions, check out our definitions and assumptions page. If you still have questions or concerns after reading that, please contact us. We would love the opportunity to understand and respond to those concerns!
